Dear Rabbi Simon, Following on from last week’s Q&A re tzitzit (is it a mitzvah?), why in the beracha on the Tallit does it not refer to the word tallit, but rather tzitzit which we have blessed (in a different formulation) before? Related to that, why do we have the tallit if we also have the tzizit? Thanks and shavua…
Where do you stand on quinoa (and the kitniyot ban) for Pesach?
Rabbi Rashi Simon